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UPSC IAS Topics asked in Exam
UPSC 2018 Prelims Marksheet
UPSC Prelims 2018 : From Reliable Source INSIGHTS
1)Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)
- IRNSS has three Satellites in geostationary and four satellites the geosynchronous orbits.
- IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
- India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Answer: A
Justification: S1: The space segment consists of the IRNSS constellation of eight satellites, NavIC. Three satellites are located in suitable orbital slots in the geostationary orbit and the remaining four are located in geosynchronous orbits with the required inclination and equatorial crossings in two different planes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
S2: It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
S3: There are long term plans to extend it to SAARC region, but not by 2019. There are plans to add 4 more satellites to the present constellation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
2)Consider the following phenomena :
- Light is affected by gravity.
- The Universe is constantly expanding.
- Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Justification: S1: Einstein’s theory of relativity has important astrophysical implications. For example, it implies the existence of black holes—regions of space in which space and time are distorted in such a way that nothing, not even light, can escape—as an end-state for massive stars.
- There is ample evidence that the intense radiation emitted by certain kinds of astronomical objects is due to black holes; for example, micro quasars and active galactic nuclei result from the presence of stellar black holes and super massive black holes, respectively.
- The bending of light by gravity can lead to the phenomenon of gravitational lensing, in which multiple images of the same distant astronomical object are visible in the sky. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
S2: General relativity also predicts the existence of gravitational waves, which have since been observed directly by the physics collaboration LIGO. In addition, general relativity is the basis of current cosmological models of a consistently expanding universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
S3: General relativity is Einstein’s law of gravity, his Justification of that fundamental force which holds us to the surface of the Earth. Gravity, Einstein asserted, is caused by warping of space and time or space-time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
3) With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :
- GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
- GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
- GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification: S1: It is developed by using three genes viz., barnase, barstar and bar from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens for hybrid seed production.
- The barnase gene confers male sterility to a plant in which it is inserted and barstar gene restore the fertility to produce fertile hybrid plants and seeds.
- The third gene bar synthesize an enzyme call PAT, which is responsible for tolerance to glufosinate in the plant. Glufosinate is a broad spectrum herbicide, which indiscriminately eliminates weeds and any plant that does not have the bar gene.
- Glufosinate herbicides contain the active ingredient phosphinothricin, which kills plants by blocking the enzyme responsible for nitrogen metabolism and for detoxifying ammonia, a by-product of plant metabolism.
S2: It has mainly two genes (‘barnase’ and ‘barstar’) that allow for cross-pollination and hybridisation in mustard, which is largely a self-pollinating plant because of its individual flowers containing both female and male reproductive organs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
S3: GM mustard was developed by scientists at Delhi University and the project was part-funded by the Department of Biotechnology, a division of the Science Ministry.
- Consider the following pairs :
Terms sometimes seen in news Context / Topic
- Belle 2 experiment – Artificial Intelligence
- Block chain technology – Digital Crypto currency
- CRISPR – Cas9 – Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification: S1: The Belle II experiment is designed to record data at Super KEKB, a 3 km circumference asymmetric electron-positron collider with a performance similar or better than Belle or BaBar, the B factory detectors, in a much more severe beam background environment.
Belle-2 experiment in Tsukuba, Japan, by The High Energy Accelerator Research Organisation (KEK) is designedto study violations of the Standard Model of particle physics.
S2: A block chain is a digitized, decentralized, public ledger of all crypto currency transactions. Constantly growing as ‘completed’ blocks (the most recent transactions) are recorded and added to it in chronological order, it allows market participants to keep track of digital currency transactions without central recordkeeping. Each node (a computer connected to the network) gets a copy of the block chain, which is downloaded automatically.
S3: CRISPR technology is a simple yet powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function. Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops. However, its promise also raises ethical concerns.
Source: https://www.belle2.org/
5) Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by. The increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Answer: A
Justification: The carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. The effect varies depending on the plant species, the temperature, and the availability of water and nutrients.
From a quarter to half of Earth’s vegetated lands has shown significant greening over the last 35 years largely due to rising levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
6)When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When You step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network
Answer: B
Justification: The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to a network comprised of physical objects capable of gathering and sharing electronic information. The Internet of Things includes a wide variety of “smart” devices, from industrial machines that transmit data about the production process to sensors that track information about the human body.
Often, these devices use internet protocol (IP), the same protocol that identifies computers over the World Wide Web and allows them to communicate with one another.
The goal behind the internet of things is to have devices that self-report in real time, improving efficiency and bringing important information to the surface more quickly than a system depending on human intervention.
Why this question was asked this year?
GOI has come out with its IOT policy .It has decided to harness IOT in transforming India through smart cities, etc.
7)With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
- India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
- The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Justification: S1: Not a single silicon chip for solar energy is manufactured in India. Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes from China, Europe and some other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters.
S2: CERC determines solar power tariffs and regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.
SECI has a power-trading license, but it does not set solar power tariffs.
Why this question was asked?
India plans to invest $480 million to set up its first unit for manufacturing solar silicon cells that will feed a project to build the world’s largest solar power plant.
8)The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were
a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Answer: D
Justification: The East India Company was originally formed in Britain for pursuing trade with the East Indies in Southeast Asia. In fact, it ended up trading mainly with the Indian subcontinent and China, where the main items of trade were cotton, silk, tea, opium, and saltpetre (potassium nitrate).
9) Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Answer: C
Justification: Known as India’s first civil disobedience movement, it was launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran district of Bihar.
It is widely regarded as the place where Gandhi made his first experiments in satyagraha and then replicated them elsewhere.
Why?
To commemorate the anniversary of the Champaran Satyagraha movement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited East Champaran in the Month of March, 2018 where he addressed over 20,000 swachhagrahis from across the country engaged in creating awareness among people to construct toilets and avoid defecation in open.
Source:
10)Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948
a) Krislum Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
c) P. Ramaswamylyer, K. Kamaraj and VeeresalingamPantulu
d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanulam and G.G. Mehta
Answer: D
Justification: The HMS was founded in Howrah in 1948 by socialists Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists which included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary.
HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist dominated AITUC.
11) With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
a) Buddhism
b) Jainism
c) Vaishnavism
d) Shaivism
Answer: B
Justification: Sthānakavāsī is a sect of Śvētāmbara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha.
The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the Śvētāmbara canon. Śvētāmbarins who are not Sthānakavāsins are mostly part the Murtipujaka sect
12) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
- White marble was used in Mughal Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
- Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara lmambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Justification: S1: The Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble and is higher than the courtyard of the mosque. The Buland Darwaza is symmetrical and is topped by large free standing kiosks, which are the chhatris.
S2: The architectural style of the Rumi Darwaza is completely in sync with the Nawabi architecture of Lucknow, and its significantly different from the Mughals. The material used for the drawaza is bricks and its then coated with lime, while the Mughals often used red sand stone. This is why the detailing on the Darwaza is more intricate, which would be impossible to achieve in stone.
13) Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?
a) Francois Bernier
b) Jean Baptiste Tavernier
c) Jean de Thevenot
d) Abbe Barthel Carre
Answer: B
Justification: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveller Tavernier, a private individual and merchant traveling at his own expense, covered, by his own account, 60,000 leagues (120,000 miles in making six voyages to Persia and India between the years 1630 and 1668.
Tavernier is best known for his discovery or purchase of the 116-carat Tavernier Blue diamond, in 1666. The diamond was certainly Indian in origin and likely sourced by Tavernier in 1666 [4] at the Kollur mine in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh.
Tavernier sold it to Louis XIV of France.
14) With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
a) Avalokiteshvara
b) Lokesvara
c) Maitreya
d) Padmapani
Answer: C
Justification: Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.
According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma.
According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha).
The prophecy of the arrival of Maitreya refers to a time in the future when the dharma will have been forgotten by most on the terrestrial world Maitreya has also been adopted for his millenarian role by many non-Buddhist religions in the past, such as the White Lotus, as well as by modern new religious movements, such as Yiguandao
15) Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
a) To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense
b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Answer: C
Justification: The French assistance to Tipu Sultan in 1798 was the last instance of active intervention of any other European power in India. To counter the intrigues of Napoleon and any further development in French Power in India, Wellesley, who was extremely influenced with the imperial thoughts, came up with the scheme of eliminating the French Power from India for ever.
He placed the British on the head of the great Indian confederacy. The Fourth Anglo Mysore war had placed England on the Military supremacy in India and now Wellesley used the Subsidiary Alliance System aggressively.
- It was a Treaty, between the company and the Indian native rulers. In return for a payment or subsidy, the company would place garrison troops in that ruler’s territory to fight against their rivals.
- An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British would accept British forces within his territory and to pay for their maintenance.
16) Consider the following statements:
- In the first Lok Sabha, the largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Statement 1: It is wrong because the Communist Party of India (CPI) was the single largest opposition party in the First general Election. CPI won in 16 seats.
Statement 3: It is wrong because in order to the receive the status of opposition party and Consequent Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure 10% of the total strength of the House 1.e. 55 seats in the Lok Sabha. This is as per the Mavalakar Rule.
Why asked?
LOP is in news in relation to appointment of Lokpal and other bodies.
17) Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
- Hard and waxy leaves
- Tiny leaves
- Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Justification: Structural adaptations are important to plant’s survival in the desert. Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through evaporation, which in the hot desert can cause loss of water from both the surface and the inside of leaves. Leaves are also smaller on desert plants, further reducing the possibility for water loss.
They have hard, thick coatings and some are covered in prickly spines to prevent water loss and to protect them from animals who might try to chew through them to get to their moisture. Hence all the statements are correct.
18) As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agriculture Household”, consider the following statements:
- Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural household among its rural household.
- Out of the total agricultural household in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
- In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural household reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Justification: The results of the survey are based on the Central Sample canvassed by NSSO, consisting of 4,529 villages spread over rural areas of all States and Union Territories. A total number of 35,200 households were surveyed in first visit and 34,907 of them could be re-surveyed in second visit. Some salient findings of the survey regarding situation of agricultural households in the country are as follows:
- Number of Agricultural households
- During the agricultural year July 2012- June 2013. Rural India had an estimated total of 90.2 million agricultural households, which constituted about 57.8 percent of the total estimated rural households of the country during the same period
- Uttar Pradesh, with an estimate of 18.05 million agricultural households, accounted for about 20 percent of all agricultural households in the country.
S1: Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households and Kerala had the least percentage share of agricultural households (27.3. percent) in its rural households. Statement 1 is correct.
S2: Out of the total estimated agricultural households in the country, about 45 percent belonged to Other Backward Classes. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Source of Income of Agricultural households
- Principal source of income of agricultural households is largely determined by the extent of land possession.
- Majority of the agricultural households which possessed more than 0.40 hectare land, reported cultivation as their principal source of income.
- Among the agricultural households having less than 0.01 hectare land, about 56 percent reported wage/salary employment as their principal source of income and another 23. Percent reported livestock as their principal source of income.
S3: Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the agricultural households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. So, statement 3 is correct.
Source: NSSO 70th Round Report ‘Key Indicators of Situation of Agricultural Households in India
19) How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
- The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
- The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Justification: The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
20)Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law passed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Statement 1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny.
The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.
The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.
Statement 2: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the Constitution
Why this has been asked?
The government is planning to bring an ordinance to overturn the Supreme Court verdict putting safeguards on arrests under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act and subsequently introduce a bill to insulate it from further judicial scrutiny.
21)Which of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?
(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machine and debit cards.
Answer: C
Justification: MDR is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments. MDR compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as MasterCard or Visa for their services.
MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and is expressed in percentage of transaction amount.
22) What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
- It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
- It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Justification: S1 and S2: The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports. But becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’ will NOT automatically make a country a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multilateral export control regime and a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons.
Membership of the NSG enables access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a traders’ cartel.
23) With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
- Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Justification: Statement 1: It is incorrect. Equalisation Levy is a tax on business transaction for online marketing in which any Indian pays a sum of more than Rs.1 lakh to non-residents entities such Google and Facebook etc. It is part of the Finance act.
Statement 2: It is incorrect. Since Equalisation Levy is outside the scope of tax treaties entered into by India with other countries, the foreign company cannot claim a tax credit in its home country.
24) Consider the following statements:
- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government.
- The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Government.
- As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the letter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Justification: S1: FRBM review panel had recommended the criterion of debt as a parameter for fiscal responsibility the central share being 40% and state 20%. Also, in terms of domestic liabilities the figures are actually reverse i:e central government 49% and state 21%.
S3: Art. 293. (3.) A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government
https://www.livemint.com/Politics/rACgsBE9cMFYEbZksaDanK/Govt-may-delay-implementation-of-NK-Singhs-FRBM-report.html
https://www.livemint.com/Politics/rACgsBE9cMFYEbZksaDanK/Govt-may-delay-implementation-of-NK-Singhs-FRBM-report.html
25)Consider the following statements:
- The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
- The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Justification: Statement 1: India imports about 14-15 million tonnes of edible oil annually to meet domestic demand. At present, the import duty on crude soybean oil is 3.0 per cent, crude sunflower oil 25 per cent and crude rapeseed oil 25 per cent.
According to ICRA, India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).In FY2016 India’s total edible oil demand stood at 24 mn tonnes out of which 9 mn tonnes was met from domestic production and 15 mn tonnes met from imports.
Statement 2: Import duty on crude edible vegetable oils like groundnut oil, olive oil, cotton seed oil, safflower seed oil, saffola oil, coconut oil, palm kernel/babassu oil, linseed oil, maize corn oil, castor oil, sesame oil, other fixed vegetable fats and oils has been raised from 12.5 per cent to 30 per cent.
Similarly, import duty on these refined edible vegetable oils has been raised from 20 per cent to 35 per cent, according to the Budget 2018 document.
26) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
a) Aurobindo Ghosh
b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) Motilal Nehru
Answer: C
Justification: Lajpat Rai adopted Mazzini as his own guru after reading Surendranath’s Speeches. In 1896, he wrote a series of books in Urdu, which he named the ‘Great Men of the World’. The first great man he chose was his Italian guru Giuseppe Mazzini, and then Garibaldi, along with Sivaji, Dayananda and Sri Krishna.
His purpose in selecting Mazzini and Garibladi was to infuse patriotic sentiment in the youth of Punjab, who had no access to books in English.
27) Consider the following gatemen.
- Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
- Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Justification: Statement 1 is wrong because as per Calcutta HC decision Aadhar Card is not a proof of citizenship.
Statement 2 is wrong because UIDAI’s update policy version 2.3 (available on the official website uidai.gov.in) has provisions for deactivation of Aadhaar, which are given below:
- If within 2 years of attaining age 5, the child’s biometrics are not updated in Aadhaar database, his/her Aadhaar number will be deactivated (no authentication permissible). It will be reactivated once biometrics are updated in database.
- If within 2 years of attaining age 15, the child’s biometrics are not updated in Aadhaar database, his/her Aadhaar number will be deactivated (no authentication permissible). It will be reactivated once biometrics are updated in database.
- If Resident has not biometrically authenticated in 5 years, his/her One Time Password (OTP) based authentication services will be deactivated. They will be re-activated once the resident biometrically authenticates.
28) Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
- Aral Sea
- Black Sea
- Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: A
Justification: S1: The Aral Sea is a saline lake located in Central Asia that was once the world’s fourth largest salt lake. In the 1960s the Aral Sea, which was the drainage basin for Kyrgyzstan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Kazakhstan, began to shrink as the Soviet Union began to divert water for agricultural purposes. The Aral Sea, which was once 26,300 square miles in size had decreased in size by 2007 to only 10% of its original area.
Lake Baikal hasn’t shrunk immensely yet. Certainly its water is shrinking. But, it’s not ‘immense’ like Aral Sea. If one has to go for two options, the intensity of shrinkage should be either equal or comparable. Case of Aral Sea is extreme and Lake Baikal’s present condition, which is better, is no comparison to Aral Sea’s fate.
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2017/oct/19/lake-baikal-russia-crippled-algae-fish-poaching-pollution
29) “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d)World Justice Project
Answer: D
Justification: The World Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary organization with the stated mission of “working to advance the rule of law around the world”. It brings rule of law index.
The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index is a quantitative assessment tool designed to offer a detailed and comprehensive picture of the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law in practice.
The Index provides data on eight dimensions of the rule of law: limited government powers; absence of corruption; order and security; fundamental rights; open government; regulatory enforcement; civil justice; and criminal justice.
These factors are further disaggregated into forty-four indicators. Together, they provide a comprehensive picture of rule of law compliance. The index is typically published annually.
30) Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
(a) Indian Banks’ Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limit
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of lndia
Answer: C
Justification: National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking.
National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network having 3.7 members and connecting about 50,000 ATMs was taken over by NPCI from Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) on December 14, 2009.
31)Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
Answer: B
Justification: Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt.
Option C: Checques are not legal tenders since they can be refused as a mode of payment settlement by a party.
32) If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
(a) The opportunity cost is zero.
(b) The opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
Answer: C
Justification: Opportunity cost represents the benefits an individual, investor or business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.
When you have the opportunity to access public services for free, this would always come at a cost of somebody paying for it. In this case, the tax payer bears the opportunity cost.
33) Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.
Answer: C
Economic growth does not necessarily connote economic development which is a holistic concept representing the well-being of the population rather than only increased income.
As the question clearly mentions effects on development, we must take into account impact of poverty and unemployment of economic growth despite having good parameters of progress in growth, per capita income etc.
34) Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables
- Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
- Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
- Accumulation of tangible wealth.
- Accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Justification: Statement 1: This is Gross Capital Formation (GCF) representing physical capital.
Statement 2: According to the OECD, human capital is defined as: “the knowledge, skills, competencies and other attributes embodied in individuals or groups of individuals acquired during their life and used to produce goods, services or ideas in market circumstances”.
Statement 3: Tangible capital is also GCF is it involves largely infrastructural components.
Statement 4: Intangible wealth of a nation is comprised of the skilled population, human resource base, culture, arts etc.
35) Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
(a) Weak administrative machinery
(b) Illiteracy
(c) High population density
(d) High capital-output ratio
Answer: D
Justification: Option D: Capital-output ratio (COR) basically indicates the amount of capital required to produce one unit of output.
For e.g. if 5 units of capital (machinery) is used to produce only 1 unit of cloth instead of the ideal requirement of only 2 units of capital (machinery) then we can say that the production is inefficient.
If COR is high, despite saving high and generating enough capital, our output may not grow significantly because the COR is high. This may be a result of poor technology or poor management.
It is also represented by the famous economic model called as Harod-Domar Model where G x c = S
Here G = Growth, C= ICOR or incremental capital output ration and S= Savings
So, clearly with high savings growth or output may remain low because of high capital- output ratio
36) After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
- The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
- It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Justification: S1: Due to the immense force of the uprising, the British government became more cautious about the needs of the tribals the Santhal inhabited areas were constituted into a separate administrative unit, called the Santhal Parganas, which recognised the distinctiveness of their tribal culture and identity.
S2: Also, it led the British government to enact laws so that the land of tribals could not be taken by outsiders (dikus).
Source: 8th NCERT History
37) Economically, one of the results of the Britith rule in India in the 19th century was the
a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
d) rapid increase in the urban population
Answer: C
Justification: Option C: A major impact of British rule was the dictated growth of commercial crops like tea and indigo to fulfil the needs of European markets.
Option D: Colonial rule negatively affected Indian industries and handicrafts, hence Indian owned factories and handicrafts were on decline. Consequently there were new cities coming up called the presidency towns along with de-urbanization phenomenon (machalipatnam lost its importance). There was no rapid increase in urban population.
38) If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
(a) The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that state
(d) The President can make laws relating to that State
Answer: B
Justification: Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State
(1) If the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation
(a) Assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) Declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament;
39) Consider the following pairs:
Craft Heritage of – Region
- Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
- Sujni embroide — Maharashtra
- Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Answer: A
Justification: Puthukkuli shawls – Tamil Nadu; Sujni embroider – Bihar; Uppada jamdani sarees – Andhra Pradesh.
40) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
- Mobile phone operations
- Banking operations
- Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Justification: There is an enormous, invisible clock that keeps ultra-precise time, can be checked from anywhere on earth, and is free for everyone to use. This technological gift to mankind was built by the US government. It is called the Global Positioning System (GPS). Cell towers use it to route your phone calls, ATMs and cash registers use it for your transactions, electrical grids use it to send power to your house, and stock exchanges use it to regulate the trades that go into your stock portfolio or investment fund. And it is far more vulnerable to attack and disruption than most people know or are willing to admit.
41) Consider the following statements:
- The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
- Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
- Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3. Only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Justification: A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation. Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
S1: G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI.
Floatation of State Government Loans (State Development Loans): As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the RBI may, by agreement with any State Government undertake the management of the public debt of that State. I
Accordingly, the RBI has entered into agreements with 29 State Governments and one Union Territory (UT of Puducherry) for management of their public debt.
S2: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs). Treasury Bills (T-bills) Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 3.64 day.
S3: Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.
For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of 100/- (face value) may be issued at say 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, 1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of 100/-.
42) Consider the following statements:
- The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
- When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
- When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Justification: S1: A change in the Earth’s magnetic field resulting in the magnetic north being aligned with the geographic south, and the magnetic south being aligned with the geographic north is called as geomagnetic reversal. Complete magnetic reversals have happened every 200,000 to 300,000 years over the past 20 million years. But that regularity hasn’t continued, as the last known reversal occurred roughly 780,000 years ago.
S2: Between 4.5 and 2.5 billion years (the Archaean and Proterozoic time), the earliest atmosphere contained carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), water vapour (H2O), carbon monoxide (CO), a little nitrogen (N), and hydrogen (H).
S3: When living organisms originated, they did not affect the early atmosphere because they lacked the ability to do so. Early atmosphere of earth was modified by solar winds. This happened not only in case of the earth, but also in all the terrestrial planets, which were supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of solar winds
- The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back….(then) About 2000 million years ago the first cellular forms of life appeared on earth. Early atmosphere of earth had no free oxygen, the (life) forms until then could at best be only “anaerobic”.
- For several eons prior to the evolution of cyanobacteria, during the Archean eon, more primitive microbes lived anaerobically, without utilizing oxygen. These ancient organisms—and their “extremophile” descendants today—thrived in the absence of oxygen, relying on sulfate for their energy needs.
- Life started to have a major impact on the environment ONLY once cyanobacteria or photosynthetic organisms evolved. These organisms, blue-green algae, fed off atmospheric carbon dioxide and converted much of it into marine sediments consisting of the shells of sea creatures.
- Oxygen was first produced somewhere around 2.7 billion to 2.8 billon years ago. The early atmosphere is much older than that (between 4.5 billion years ago to 2.5 billion years ago). Hence, S3 is INCORRECT.
NCERT Class 11th Physical Geography, Chapter 2, Page 17
43) The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya, Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned news recently are related to
(a) Exoplanets
(b) Crypto currency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Answer: C
44) With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance” Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
- Avoiding the monoculture practices
- Adopting minimum tillage
- Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
- Using crop residues to cover soil surface
- Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer: C
Justification: Conservation agriculture (CA) can be defined by a statement given by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations as “a concept for resource-saving agricultural crop production that strives to achieve acceptable profits together with high and sustained production levels while concurrently conserving the environment”
The 3 principles of CA are:
- Minimum tillage and soil disturbance
- Permanent soil cover with crop residues and live mulches
- Crop rotation and intercropping
45) The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
(a) Widespread monoculture Practices agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivationin other Parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss offood biodiversity.
(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss, natural habitats, destructionof ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Answer: D
Justification: The Holocene extinction, otherwise referred to as the Sixth extinction or Anthropocene extinction, is the ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human activity.
The large number of extinctions spans numerous families of plants and animals, including mammals, birds, amphibians, reptiles and arthropods.
With widespread degradation of highly bio-diverse habitats such as coral reefs and rainforests, as well as other areas, the vast majority of these extinctions is thought to be undocumented, as we are either not even aware of the existence of the species before they go extinct, or we haven’t yet discovered their extinction.
The current rate of extinction of species is estimated at 100 to 1,000 times higher than natural background rates.
46) Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
- Charter Act of 1813
- General Committee of Public Instruction
- Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Justification: S1: The Charter Act of 1813 is regarded as the foundation stone of English Education System in India.
When the East India Company came to India they did not allow the missionaries for the propagation of the religious education to the common people in India. Because they felt that the education from the missionaries would encourage the religious sentiments among the people in India that could affected the business policy and the diplomatic role of the East India Company. Therefore, from 1793 to 1813 the company did not permit the missionaries to work for the Indian people.
But, the Charter Act of 1813 permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion.
It was also a landmark in that it was 1st official move on education in India by British where a dedicated grant for education was provided.
The Act also created a controversy between the anglicist and classicist on the medium of instruction.
S2 and S3: In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. That committee consisted of 10 European members of which Lord Macaulay was the president. The committee decided to spend major portions from the grant for the improvement of oriental literature.
Even, the General Committee of Public Instruction also was not able to decide the medium of instruction by vote; because out of ten members, five were supporters of English language or Anglicist as the medium of instruction and the rest were supporters of oriental or classic language or Classicists as a medium of instruction. This is the famous Anglicist and Classicists controversy.
As a president of General Committee of Public Instruction, Lord Macaulay wrote a minute on 2nd February 1835, where he made the conclusion regarding the controversy. Lord Macaulay stressed the implementation of the English language as a medium of instruction through his minute. According to him, English was the best medium of instruction.
47) Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Answer: A
Justification: Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Kodaikanal Lake is in the Palni Hills.
It is starfish-shaped but with four points, centrally located in the town of Kodaikanal and is surrounded by lush green hills of the Northwestern Palani Hills.
48) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements
- It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
- It aims to align the competencies of the un-regulated workforce of the count, to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Justification: Statement 1 is incorrect: Pradhan MantriKaushalVikasYojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).
Key Components of the Scheme:
- The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. Duration of the training varies per job role, ranging between 150 and 3.00 hours.
- Recognition of Prior Learning Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme. RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF.
49) In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
a) All India Home Rule League
b) Hindu Mahasabha
c) South Indian Liberal Federation
d) The Servants of Indian Society
Answer: A
Justification: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Home_Rule_movement
50) Which among the following events happened earliest?
a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination
Answer: B
Justification:
- Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj-1875
- Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan=1858-1859
- Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath-1882
- Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination -1863
51) Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
- Decreased salinity in the river
- Pollution of groundwater
- Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification: The removal of sand from the river bed increases the velocity of the flowing water, with the distorted flow-regime eventually eroding the river banks.
Sand acts like a sponge, which helps in recharging the water table; its progressive depletion in the river is accompanied by declining water tables in the nearby areas.
Depletion of sand in the stream bed causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to saline-water intrusion.
Sand acts as an efficient filter for various pollutants and thus maintains the quality of water in rivers and other aquatic ecosystems.
52)With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
- A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
- Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
- Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification: S1: Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water holding capacity. Organic matter influences the physical conditions of a soil in several ways. Plant residues that cover the soil surface protect the soil from sealing and crusting by raindrop impact, thereby enhancing rainwater infiltration and reducing runoff. Each 1 percent increase in soil organic matter helps soil hold 20,000 gallons more water per acre.
S2: Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulphur cycle describes the movement of sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although sulphur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins
S3: Salinization is a major problem associated with irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops. Hence statement 3 is correct
53) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism m assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Answer: B
Justification: In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled ‘The Future We Want’ was a call to action for governments, business and the UN alike to support countries interested in transition to a green economy. PAGE was created as the UN’s direct response to this call of action.
Four UN organizations, including ILO, UN Environment, UNIDO and UNITAR initially joined forces to be able to provide countries with broad and tailored support.
54) “3D, printing” has applications in which the following?
- Preparation of confectionery items
- Manufacture of bionic ears
- Automotive industry
- Reconstructive surgeries
- Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Justification: S1: 3D printing is being used across a range of industries, from construction to medical technology. Its use in the food industry continues to grow. 3D printing of confectionery has focused primarily on chocolate and hard sugar candy, tut recent innovations have led to printing of gummy candy. http://www.mintel.com/blog/food-market-news/whats-next-in-3d-sugar-confectionery-printing
S2: Bionic ears have been developed by some agencies, recently in news.
S3: It is quite logical as constructing solid parts was one of the first uses of 3D printing.
S4: People can now receive custom 3D-printed facial implants to help after illness or injuries. Read here https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/28639959 and here https://www.odtmag.com/contents/view_videos/2017-07-28/3d-printing-is-revolutionizing-facial-reconstructive-surgery/48616
S5: Multimaterial voxel-printing method that enables the physical visualization of data sets commonly associated with scientific imaging.
- It enables additive manufacturing of discontinuous data types such as point cloud data, curve and graph data, image-based data, and volumetric data.
- By converting data sets into dithered material deposition descriptions, through modifications to rasterization processes, we demonstrate that data sets frequently visualized on screen can be converted into physical, materially heterogeneous objects.
- It alleviates the need to postprocess data sets to boundary representations, preventing alteration of data and loss of information in the produced physicalizations.
- Therefore, it bridges the gap between digital information representation and physical material composition.
You can read it here http://advances.sciencemag.org/content/4/5/eaas8652.full
55) Consider the following statements:
- The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory.
- Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar
- The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: A
Justification: Barren Island, a possession of India in the Andaman Sea about 140 km NE of Port Blair in the Andaman Islands, is the only historically active volcano along the N-S-trending volcanic arc extending between Sumatra and Burma (Myanmar). The 354-m-high island is the emergent summit of a volcano that rises from a depth of about 2250 m.
The Barren Island volcano, on a remote uninhabited island off the country’s eastern coast, had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995 and 2005.
56) Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows
(c) Its extract is used in the pesticides.
(d) None of the above
Answer: B
Justification: The kikar or Prosopisjuliflora was brought to Delhi from Mexico by the British more than a century ago. The exotic plant became invasive and wiped out most of the native plants and along with it the animals, which once used to roam in the ridges. With its deep roots, it had also wreaked havoc on city’s groundwater.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/delhi-news/delhi-indigenous-vines-to-be-used-to-kill-invasive-tree-species/ story-6owi4Ep4JysSKOvui521jL.html
57) Consider the following statements:
- Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
- More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
- Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Justification: S1 and S2: The vast majority of large reefs created by corals in shallow waters (< 50 m water depth) are located within a tropical zone located between 30º N and 30º S latitude with a preferred temperature range of approximately 22º to 29º C. Coral reefs are often called the “tropical rainforests of the sea” for their astounding richness of life.
Fig: Worldwide distribution of coral reefs.
S3: Coral reefs are the most diverse communities on the planet. These tropical marine communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor, but are inhabited by at least 25% of all marine species. Scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats – four times the number of animal phyla found in tropical rain forests.
58)“Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
b) The UNEP Secretariat
c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) The World Meteorological Organization.
Answer: C
Justification: Climate Neutral Now is an initiative launched by the UN Climate Change in 2015, aiming at encouraging and supporting
All levels of society to take climate action to achieve a climate neutral world by mid-century, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement adopted the same year.
The initiative therefore invites companies, organizations, governments and citizens to work towards climate neutrality by reducing their climate footprint thanks to a simple 3.-steps method, whereby they shall:
- Measure their greenhouse gas emissions;
- Reduce them as much as possible; and
- Compensate those which cannot be avoided by using UN certified emission reductions (CERs).
59) With the reference to educational institutions during rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
- Sanskrit College William Jones at Banaras
- Calcutta Madras Warren Hastings
- Fort William Arthur Wellesley College
Which of the pairs given below is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: B
Justification: Warren Hastings, himself an intellectual, set up the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 for the study and learning of Persian and Arabic.
In 1791 the efforts of Jonathan Duncan, the British Resident at Benares, bore fruit and a Sanskrit College was opened at Benares.
Lord Richard Colley Wellesley (NOT ARTHUR WELLESLEY) took the first step for training of Civil Servants when he founded the fort William College, in Calcutta in November 1800 where the Civil Servants of the Company were to receive training in the literature, science and languages of India.
Source: (BL GROVER MODERN India, PAGE NO. 176 and 257)
60) Consider the following pairs:
Regions sometimes mentioned in news : Country
Catalonia – Spain
Crimea – Hungary
Mindanao – Philippines
Oromia – Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: C
Justification: The autonomous community of Catalonia occupies a triangular area in the north-eastern corner ofSpain. It is bordered by France and Andorra to the north, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous community of Valencia to the south, and the autonomous community of Aragon to the west.
The Republic of Crimea, officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula stretching out from the south of Ukraine between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is separated from Russia to the east by the narrow Kerch Strait.
Mindanao, island, the second largest (after Luzon) in the Philippines, in the southern part of the archipelago, surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.
Oromia is one of the nine ethnically based regional states of Ethiopia, covering 284,538 square kilometres.
61) Consider the following statements:
- Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
- CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Justification: Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
62) The identity platform ‘Aadhar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?
- It can be integrated into any electronic device.
- Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Justification: Aadhaar provides open Application Programming Interfaces or APIs, which can be integrated easily into any electronic device.
These APIs enable online authentication using a fingerprint or iris.
63) Very recently, in which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Answer: D
Justification: The world faces one of the largest food crises in 70 years with 20 million people I four countries namely: Yemen, Nigeria, South Sudan and Somalia according to FAO.
64) Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
- Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
- Establishment of universities was recommended.
- English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Justification: Wood’s Despatch is called Magnacarta of English Education in India. As per this despatch:
- An education department was to be set in every province.
- Universities on the model of the London University be established in big cities such as Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
- At least one government school be opened in every district.
- Affiliated private schools should be given grant in aid.
- The Indian natives should be given training in their mother tongue also.
- In accordance with Wood’s despatch, Education Departments were established in every province and universities were opened at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1857 on the model of the London University.
- Later more universities were opened in Punjab in 1882 and at Allahabad 1887.
65) With reference to the Parliament of India, , which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: B
Justification: Committee of Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rule, sub-rules and by laws delegated by the parliament or conferred by the constitution to the executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the houses the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.
66) Consider the following statements:
- As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
- As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
- In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Answer: B
Justification: Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct because under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE), Act 2009, National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE), has laid down the minimum educational & professional qualifications for a person to be eligible for an appointment as a teacher for classes I-VIII, which are applicable to all schools imparting elementary education, including the schools under the State Governments and to qualify under a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).
Why asked this year?
Parliament amended RTE act to give teachers time till 2019 to acquire qualifications.
67) Consider the following pairs :
| Tradition | State | ||
| 1. | Chapchar Kut festival | — | Mizoram |
| 2. | Khongjom Parba ballad | — | Manipur |
| 3. | Thang-Ta dance | — | Sikkim |
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification:
Festival State
Chapchar kut festival – Mizoram
Khongiom parba ballad- Manipur
Thang-Ta dance – Manipur
68) Consider the following statements:
- The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Justification: Statement 1 is correct because The FSSAI Act took 8 older acts into one umbrella including Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI/
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India. It is not under the charge of Director General of Health services.
69) The term “Two state Solution” is sometimes mentioned in the new in the context of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Answer: B
Justification: It is in the news very recently because of the announcement by the American President Donald Trump about opening of the American Embassy in Jerusalem and subsequent protests by Palestinians in which many have died. The two state solution also keeps figuring out in the news.
70)With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
- The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidies food grains.
- The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: B
Justification: Salient Features of NFSA
Statement 1: Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.
Statement 3: Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.
The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI are 500 calories and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) calories and 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished children.
Statement 2: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
71) India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Answer: D
Justification: Article 22 of the TRIPS Agreements (WTO Agreement) defines Geographical Indication as “indications which identify a good as originating in the territory of a Member, or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin”.
Consequently, upon India joining as a member state of the TRIPS Agreement sui-geneis legislation for the protection of geographical indication was enacted in 1999. Geographical Indications are covered as an element of Intellectual Property Rights under the TRIPS Agreement (WTO Agreement).
72) Consider the following statements
- In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
- Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
- Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: D
Justification: As per the new mining law — Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015 — which came into effect from January 2015, the non-coal mines have to be auctioned by the respective state governments.
Jharkhand has both alluvial and native gold. Alluvial gold is obtained from the sands of the Subarnarekha river, Sona Nadi in Singhbhum district and the streams draining the Sonapat valley. Native gold is found near Lowa in Singhbhum district.
In Andhra Pradesh gold deposits are found in Ramagiri in Anantapur district.
In Rajasthan the Iron-Ore deposits are located in the districts of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara.
73) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
- BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
- While a chip pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Justification: Statement 1 is correct because BHIM app is powered by UPI and integrates the Payments platform as the official app of the government of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Debit card does not have four factor authorization and BHIM app has three factor authorization.
74) Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Answer: A
Justification:
75)International Labour Organisation, Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Answer: A
Justification: The Union Cabinet recently gave its approval for ratification of the two fundamental conventions of the International Labour Organization namely, Minimum Age Convention (No 138) concerning minimum age for admission to employment and the Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention (No 182) concerning the prohibition and immediate action for elimination of the worst forms of Child Labour.
76)Consider the following events
- The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
- India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
- Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
- Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
Answer: B
Justification: Statement 1: First democratically elected communist party government formed in a state in India in 1957. The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats.
Statement 2: Imperial bank was renamed as state bank of India in 1955. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ Imperial_Bank_of_India).
Statement 3: Air India was nationalised in 1953. Government of India passed the Air Corporations Act and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.
Statement 4: Goa became an independent India on 18 December 1961. Indian troops crossed the border into Goa and “liberated” it.
77) Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of state Policy in Part IV.
c) Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in part III
d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th Amendment to the constitution.
Answer: C
Justification: Privacy is a constitutionally protected right which emerges primarily from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution. Elements of privacy also arise in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognized and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III.
Why asked this year?
Supreme Court judgment on Right to Privacy in 2017
Source:
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/08/26/insights-editorial-citizen-vs-state-right-privacy-verdict/
78)Consider the following:
- Areca nut
- Barley
- Coffee
- Finger millet
- Groundnut
- Sesamum
- Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7
Answer: B
79) In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Answer: A
Justification: Spread over an area of 862 sq. km. at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh, Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is also known as Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary and more popularly as Pakke Tiger Reserve. Earlier a game sanctuary, it became a wildlife sanctuary in 2001 and a part of Project Tiger in 2002. The sanctuary is well-known for being home to tigers and many amazing species of hornbill.
80) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicle, consider the following statements:
- PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
- Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
- GSLV MK III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Answer: A
Justification: PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication-satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250 x 3.6000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). The satellite in GTO is further raised to its final destination, viz., Geo-synchronous Earth orbit (GEO) of about 3.6000 Km altitude (and zero degree inclination on equatorial plane) by firing its in-built on-board engines. Due to their geo-synchronous nature, the satellites in these orbits appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth, thus avoiding the need of a tracking ground antenna and hence are useful for the communication applications.
GSLV Mk 3 is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-one, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.
81) With reference to the governance of ‘public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
- Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
- To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Justification: S1: Capital infusion has not been steady, therefore statement 1 is wrong.
One of the desired objectives of consolidation of banks is the streamlining of banking operations and reduce their NPA burden. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
82) Consider the following items:
- Cereal grains hulled
- Chicken eggs cooked
- Fish processed and canned
- Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempt under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Justification: Previously GST council imposed 5% rate of GST on hulled grains. However, later on 11th June 2017, the rate of GST applicable on hulled grains is 0%. (Nil rate) falls under GST HSN code number 1104. Source:( http://howtoexportimport.com/Rate-of-GST-on-Hulled-cereal-grains-7241.aspx)
Chicken eggs cooked: 0% GST rate Source ( https://www.exportgenius.in/gst-tax-rates/chicken-egg)
Fish processed and canned: 5% GST rate Source ( https://www.indiafilings.com/learn/gst-rate-for-fish-fish-products-and-seafood/)
Newspapers containing advertising material: 0% GST rate Source ( https://cleartax.in/s/printed-books-brochures-newspapers-gst-rate-hsn-code)
However, ads attract 5% GST, not the newspapers publishing them (for selling space for advertisements in the print media would be 5%). Newspapers per se – with or without advertisements – are exempt from GST.
83)Consider the following statements:
- The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
- For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
- Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Justification: The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
84) Consider the following:
- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Justification: Nematodes, snails, birds, and wild and domestic animals often help dissemination of plant diseases.
The spores of many parasitic fungi are disseminated by air currents from diseased to disease-free host Pathogens like, bacteria are often disseminated by splashing of raindrops, as in case of Citrus canker disease.
Soil and field operation also disseminate the diseases as they result in dust blowing.
85) With references to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
- The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union ministry of Rural Development.
- ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA), functions the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
- Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification: Statement 1 is incorrect: Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001. The objectives of NPOP are as under:
- To provide the means of evaluation of certification programme for organic agriculture and products (including wild harvest, aquaculture, livestock products) as per the approved criteria.
- To accredit certification programmes of Certification Bodies seeking accreditation.
- To facilitate certification of organic products in conformity with the prescribed standards.
- To facilitate certification of organic products in conformity with the importing countries organic standards as per equivalence agreement between the two countries or as per importing country requirements.
- To encourage the development of organic farming and organic processing.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Sikkim-becomes-India%E2%80%99s-first-organic-state/ article13.999445.ece
86) Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a) A bill shall be deemed to be money bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
c) A Money Bill is concerned with appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the government of India
Answer: C
Justification: A110. Definition of Money Bill
(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely
(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;
(c) the custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;
(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India (not Contingency Fund of India). So, C is incorrect.
87) With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Justification: S1: Value of vote of MLA is based on population criterion and population of each state has a different value hence, statement 1 is correct
S2: The value of vote of each MP is same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is a little unclear on whether it refers to an individual MP or MPs as a whole. But, then the term “The value of THE VOTE (and not VOTES)” makes it clear that the examiner is not asking you for the total number of votes. So, “MPs of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha” are to be understood as a single group here, and not as a plural entity. Thus, S2 will be wrong.
88) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
Solutions: A
Justification: Statement 1 is correct because an Additional Protocol (AP) to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is incorrect as IAEA protocol ratification will not give the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
Statement 4 is incorrect because NSG membership is not based on IAEA Additional Protocol ratification.
89) Consider the following counties:
- Australia
- Canada
- China
- India
- Japan
- USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 6
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer: C
Justification: Apart from the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) between ASEAN member states, the regional trade bloc has signed several FTAs with some of the major economies in the Asia-Pacific region. These include the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand FTA (AANZFTA), the ASEAN-China FTA (ACFTA), the ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA), the ASEAN Korea FTA (AKFTA), and the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP).
Why it was asked?
To mark 25 years of collaboration, besides 10 years of summit-level association and five years of strategic partnership, India has invited the leaders of all 10 ASEAN countries to New Delhi for a commemorative summit on 25 January. The theme of the summit is “Shared Values, Common Destiny”
Mentioned in the list of important topics for prelims 2018 by InsightsIAS Team:
90) With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
- GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Pats in 2015.
- Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification: Statement 1 is incorrect because the concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. In 2014 an alliance was set up with this issue as its focal point: the GASCA (Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture).
GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyse and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.
Statement 2 is correct because membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
Statement 3 is incorrect because India is just a signatory.
91) Which of the following is/are the aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
- Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
- Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
- Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Justification: Only statement 3 is correct
The Digital India programme is centred on three key vision areas:
- Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen
- Governance and Services on Demand
- Digital Empowerment of Citizens
92) Consider the following pairs
Towns sometimes mentioned Country in news
- Aleppo — Syria
- Kirkuk — Yemen
- Mosul — Palestine
- Mazar-i-sharif — Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: B
Justification:
- Aleppo – Syria
- Kirkuk – Iraq
- Mosul – Iraq
- Mazar-i-sharif – Afghanistan
93)In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
- Federal Legislature
- Governor General
- Provincial Legislature
- Provincial Governors
Answer: B
Residuary legislative powers were vested in the Governor-General under the Government of India Act of 1935.
94) Consider the following statements:
- Speaker of the legislative assembly shall vacate his/her office of he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly
- Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved the speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 not 2
Answer: A
Justification: Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases:
- If he ceases to be a member of the assembly
- If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and;
- If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.
Why asked this year?
Karnataka assembly election result created controversy related to speaker.
Further last year role of speaker of assembly was in news in relation to political developments in TN and government formation in various states.
95) Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law of the land and liberty?
a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty
b) If there is no law, there is no liberty
c) If there is liberty laws have to be made by the people
d) If laws are changed to often liberty is in danger
Answer: B
Justification: The statements in this question are a little vague and prone to various interpretations based on the context.
Option B is a popular choice because it was a statement made by John Locke. He, in Second Treatise of Civil Government, wrote: “where there is no law, there is no freedom” In 1689, he also wrote that “the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” No law would give LICENSCE (Unregulated liberty). Therefore, B is correct.
But, then such statements are not to be considered objective realities. If there are no laws, there can be either complete liberty, because nothing restricts the actions of citizens, or NO liberty because then lawlessness can heavily curtail liberty. It really depends. It is an extreme statement to say that when there are no laws, there is no liberty (Can we say there is no liberty in a Jungle?) There can be liberty despite the absence of laws.
Still, our experience says that UPSC would pick B as the answer despite all the odds.
Option D: This can also be justified, but this would not be the most appropriate answer here (because UPSC might well consider B as more appropriate).
- The fundamental philosophy of rule of law in a liberal society is that laws should be just, reasonable and based on the principles of fairness and equity. If laws are changed too often, one would find their actions restricted because what was a completely lawful action, such as smoking, may suddenly become illegal because it hurts the health of a common citizen.
- And then on the next day, the government can legalise smoking and thus infringe on the liberty of those who cannot bear public smoking.
- When laws are changed too often, and when there is no fundamental principle on which laws are based, it can lead to dictatorship and arbitarariness, which defeats the very purpose of the rule of law based on reason.
- But, laws can also be changed too often based on the exigencies and contingencies and this may not violate someone’s liberty. However, if there was no option B, this would have been the most appropriate answer.
Option A is incorrect because if there are more laws, it may lead to more liberty as well as laws themselves might be enabling more liberty.
96) Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during his term of office
- Emoluments and allowances of the governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Justification: Article 361. Protection of President and Governors
No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office,
Article 158: Conditions of Governor Office
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office
Why it was asked?
Budget 2017-18 increased the salary and emolument of governors.
A complaint about alleged misconduct on the part of a governor of a southern state has been received by the home ministry and is being investigated for its veracity.
97) The well-known painting “BaniThani” belongs to the
a) Bundi school
b) Jaipur school
c) Kangra school
d) Kishangarh school
Answer: D
Justification: BaniThani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The painting’s subject, BaniThani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of kingSawant Singh (1748–1764).
She has been compared to the Mona Lisa. Inspired by Radha, BaniThani is characterized by idealized distinct features such as arched eyebrows, lotus-like elongated eyes and pointed chin. This painting was featured in an Indian stamp issued in 1973.
98) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti-missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Answer: C
Justification: Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or re-entry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.
THAAD was developed after the experience of Iraq’s Scud missile attacks during the Gulf War in 1991. The THAAD interceptor carries no warhead, but relies on its kinetic energy of impact to destroy the incoming missile.
A kinetic energy hit minimizes the risk of exploding conventional-warhead ballistic missiles, and the warhead of nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles will not detonate on a kinetic-energy hit.
99) With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
- Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
- Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
- Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
- Annamacharyaldrtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Justification: Statement 1: TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Hence S1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Tyagaraja took music training from SontiVenkataramayya. But that didn’t stop him from taking musical inspirations from various earlier poets. He was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour he wrote numerous musical operas, and about twenty four thousand songs, a claim that has been speculated among music historians. Hence, S2 is correct.
Statement 3: Tyagaraja was born on 14th May 1767 in the village of Thiruvayaru in the Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu whereas TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a 15th-century Hindu saint. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 4: TaḷḷapākaAnnamācārya (or Annamayya) (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Hence, S4 is correct.
Why this was asked?
250th birth anniversary.
Mentioned in the list of important topics for prelims 2018 by Insightsias Team:
100) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
- Limitation of powers
- Equality before law
- People’s responsibility to the Government
- Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 ad 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2,3 and 4
Answer: C
Justification: Rule of Law includes:
- Absence of arbitrary power
- Equality before law
- Primacy of individual rights
Statement 3 is wrong because it should be that government is responsible to the people and not the vice versa.